UPLS new contributions
Posted: December 20th, 2023, 10:43 am
Hi
I've been trying get my head around how the PCLS works post crystallisation.
More specifically how are additional contributions handled in an existing pension in drawdown and how is additional growth apportioned.
I have approached my pension provider and this is the reply I got. Which I don't really understand.
The new contributions into your SIPP would go into a separate tranche.
There is not an option to ring fence your dividends, the dividends will go straight into the cash account and the SIPP as a whole will be proportionally split into crystallised and uncrystallised funds.
If the SIPP was to increase or decrease the uncrystallised and crystallised sections of the SIPP would do the same at the proportional split.
I'll use a worked example of what I think this means and expose my ignorance, the numbers used are illustrative, if contrived and unrealistic. Hopefully someone here will be able to explain how this works.
Lets introduce Steve.
Steve retires at 57, He has a DC pot worth £480K. He takes his maximum of 25% for UPLS (120K) and 360K goes into drawdown. This leave 148K of the UPLS allowance unused. He takes 12K per year from his pension (so he is subject to the 4K rule), he has no other qualifying income anyway. He however does deposit the £2880 amount into the pension which the Government grosses up to 3.6K. This according to the above goes into a separate tranche.
His investment performance is stellar he makes 112K per year, so his pot grows by 100K annually after the 12K is removed.
This carries on for 10 years, at 67 Steve is ready crystallise that new tranche.
Steve is now in an enviable position, he has a pension pot with the following breakdown 1 million (growth) + 36K (uncrystallised tranche) + 360K crystallised tranche in drawdown. For a total fund of £1,396,000.
How much PCLS is he allowed to have? The most obvious limit is 268K, so given he has already taken 120K the most he can get 148K. However he can only get various percentages, the most important part being how much of that 1 million growth is apportioned to his second tranche.
Option 1
36K is 10% of 360K, thus is he allowed to access 10% of the 1 million profit (100K) + 25% of 36K. 25% of 100K is 25K+9K makes 34K new UPLS
Option 2
36K is just over 9% of 396K (36K + 360K), thus he is allowed to access 90K of the 1 million + 25% of the 36K. 25% of 90K +9K makes 31.5K new UPLS
Both these options assume that the growth from the two tranches would be the same, which is not true the second tranche would initially be small, but given stock market volatility I'm not sure how it could be calculated on an ongoing basis.
There is however a further nuance.
Steve has been taking 12K a year in income (120K in total), this has reduced the profits, where does this fit into the equation? I think it must be reducing the crystallised tranche. So 360K has been reduced to 240K. Using the reduced figure for both options changes things.
Option 3
36K is 15% of 240K thus he is allowed to access 15% (150K) of the 1 million profit + 25% of 36K. 25% of 150K is 37.5K + 9k makes a new PCLS of 46.5K
Options 4
36K is 13% of 276K thus he is allowed to have 130K + 25% of the 36K. 25% of is 32.5K + 9K makes a new PCLS of 41.5K
As an aside the LTA is abolished from April, so there is no tax implication from the pot growing, at least until money is taken out.
Maybe a scenario I've missed?
The numbers are large to ensure there is a reasonable range, however if Steve had not been subject to the MPAA limit then contributions could be much higher and the numbers would start to become a lot more credible. Moreover taking more than 12K would also potentially reduce the crystallised pot.
I've been trying get my head around how the PCLS works post crystallisation.
More specifically how are additional contributions handled in an existing pension in drawdown and how is additional growth apportioned.
I have approached my pension provider and this is the reply I got. Which I don't really understand.
The new contributions into your SIPP would go into a separate tranche.
There is not an option to ring fence your dividends, the dividends will go straight into the cash account and the SIPP as a whole will be proportionally split into crystallised and uncrystallised funds.
If the SIPP was to increase or decrease the uncrystallised and crystallised sections of the SIPP would do the same at the proportional split.
I'll use a worked example of what I think this means and expose my ignorance, the numbers used are illustrative, if contrived and unrealistic. Hopefully someone here will be able to explain how this works.
Lets introduce Steve.
Steve retires at 57, He has a DC pot worth £480K. He takes his maximum of 25% for UPLS (120K) and 360K goes into drawdown. This leave 148K of the UPLS allowance unused. He takes 12K per year from his pension (so he is subject to the 4K rule), he has no other qualifying income anyway. He however does deposit the £2880 amount into the pension which the Government grosses up to 3.6K. This according to the above goes into a separate tranche.
His investment performance is stellar he makes 112K per year, so his pot grows by 100K annually after the 12K is removed.
This carries on for 10 years, at 67 Steve is ready crystallise that new tranche.
Steve is now in an enviable position, he has a pension pot with the following breakdown 1 million (growth) + 36K (uncrystallised tranche) + 360K crystallised tranche in drawdown. For a total fund of £1,396,000.
How much PCLS is he allowed to have? The most obvious limit is 268K, so given he has already taken 120K the most he can get 148K. However he can only get various percentages, the most important part being how much of that 1 million growth is apportioned to his second tranche.
Option 1
36K is 10% of 360K, thus is he allowed to access 10% of the 1 million profit (100K) + 25% of 36K. 25% of 100K is 25K+9K makes 34K new UPLS
Option 2
36K is just over 9% of 396K (36K + 360K), thus he is allowed to access 90K of the 1 million + 25% of the 36K. 25% of 90K +9K makes 31.5K new UPLS
Both these options assume that the growth from the two tranches would be the same, which is not true the second tranche would initially be small, but given stock market volatility I'm not sure how it could be calculated on an ongoing basis.
There is however a further nuance.
Steve has been taking 12K a year in income (120K in total), this has reduced the profits, where does this fit into the equation? I think it must be reducing the crystallised tranche. So 360K has been reduced to 240K. Using the reduced figure for both options changes things.
Option 3
36K is 15% of 240K thus he is allowed to access 15% (150K) of the 1 million profit + 25% of 36K. 25% of 150K is 37.5K + 9k makes a new PCLS of 46.5K
Options 4
36K is 13% of 276K thus he is allowed to have 130K + 25% of the 36K. 25% of is 32.5K + 9K makes a new PCLS of 41.5K
As an aside the LTA is abolished from April, so there is no tax implication from the pot growing, at least until money is taken out.
Maybe a scenario I've missed?
The numbers are large to ensure there is a reasonable range, however if Steve had not been subject to the MPAA limit then contributions could be much higher and the numbers would start to become a lot more credible. Moreover taking more than 12K would also potentially reduce the crystallised pot.